28 Tuesday Feb 2012
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There is nothing virtuous in being poor, there is nothing virtuous in being wealthy, and there is nothing virtuous in between. Virtue is of two things: God and one’s heart manifesting itself in proper actions.
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But if the wealthy Christian decides to remain wealthy, they are not virtuous.
“You always have the poor with you, but you do not always have Me.” Matt 26:11
“If anyone has this world’s goods and sees his brother in need but closes his eyes to his need—how can God’s love reside in him?”
1John 3:17
“At the present time your surplus is available for their need, so their abundance may also become available for our need, so there may be equality. As it has been written:
The person who gathered much
did not have too much,
and the person who gathered little
did not have too little.”
2Cor 8:14-15
Andrew, That’s simply not the case. The wealth a person has does not mean that person must expend it all in order to no longer be wealthy – there is no such teaching.
How can one not reach that conclusion from those verses? …especially 1John 3:17 and the context of 2Cor 8:8-15?
A person’s wealth is their own. There is no virtue in expending one’s wealth to the degree of having no wealth. The verses simply do not teach it. The key is the heart, not the quantity.
A person’s wealth is not merely their own. It’s a gift from God–a test that we should seek to pass (2Cor 8:8).
Let me quote again: Jesus said we will always have poor people (Matt 26:11) and we do! So as we see poor people but not give them what they need, we do not have the love of God (1John 3:17). Paul said that when someone has surplus, they need to give to those in need so there may be equality (2Cor 8:14-15). This equality of meeting people’s needs is a matter of quantity!
Therefore, the Bible explicitly teaches that if one has wealth beyond their needs, then they must give up that wealth to meet other people’s needs. If they don’t and keep that wealth, then they do not have the love of God.
Really, Andrew? Tell me, how much is “wealth beyond their need”? Are you going to start asserting that there is a particular amount of wealth that is too much? If so, what is that amount?
Your attempt at a syllogism has failed. Your second premise is a misapplication of the verse/context. The apostle talks about brother; you left it open to much more than a brother. Your third premise, again, is a misapplication; the Lord’s exhortation, by Paul, is to help sister churches who have suffered need. Consequently, your conclusion has failed.
Questions:
1. What was the sin of Ananias and Sapphira? Was it the amount they gave or something else?
2. To whom was Paul addressing his remarks in 2 Corinthians 8 and 9?
3. To whom was John addressing his remarks in 1 John?
4. The wealth you have, are you now poor because you have expended that money to help one less fortunate than yourself?
5. How much wealth are you allowed to have? Why are you allowed to have it?
6. Define “wealth”?
Why do you say my syllogism has failed when you haven’t fully heard my defense with Scripture?
I will email you my response.